question: 1
You are managing a project and realize that two critical tasks are delayed. What should you do first?
A. Inform the project sponsor immediately
B. Update the risk register
C. Perform an impact analysis on the project schedule
D. Request more resources to speed up the tasks

correct answer: C
explanation: Always assess the impact first before escalating or taking corrective actions.

question: 2
During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a major change. What is the BEST next step?
A. Implement the change immediately
B. Analyze the impact and follow the change control process
C. Consult the project sponsor for advice
D. Update the project plan yourself

correct answer: B
explanation: Changes must always be analyzed and go through the formal change control process.

question: 3
Which document authorizes a project and gives the project manager authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Scope statement
D. Business case

correct answer: A
explanation: The project charter formally authorizes the project and the project manager’s authority.

question: 4
Which conflict resolution technique emphasizes a win-win solution?
A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Compromising
D. Collaborating

correct answer: D
explanation: Collaborating addresses the root cause and seeks a win-win outcome.

question: 5
A project manager is creating a detailed description of the project deliverables. Which process is this?
A. Define Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: Define Scope involves developing a detailed project and product description.

question: 6
What is a key output of the Monitor Risks process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk report
C. Change requests
D. Risk management plan

correct answer: C
explanation: Change requests are a major output as risks can trigger changes.

question: 7
Which of the following is an example of a preventive action?
A. Fixing a defect
B. Inspecting deliverables
C. Upgrading software before issues occur
D. Accepting a risk

correct answer: C
explanation: Preventive actions reduce the probability of future problems.

question: 8
Who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations?
A. Sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Customer

correct answer: C
explanation: The project manager manages stakeholder expectations.

question: 9
In the hierarchy of project documents, which has the highest authority?
A. Scope statement
B. Project charter
C. Business case
D. Stakeholder register

correct answer: B
explanation: The project charter is the top-level authority document during the project.

question: 10
What technique is used to calculate the earliest and latest start and finish dates?
A. Critical chain method
B. Critical path method
C. Monte Carlo analysis
D. Fast tracking

correct answer: B
explanation: Critical path method calculates earliest/latest start and finish dates.

question: 11
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required?
A. Discretionary
B. Mandatory
C. External
D. Internal

correct answer: B
explanation: Mandatory dependencies are legally or contractually required.

question: 12
What is a primary benefit of creating a WBS?
A. It defines the project budget.
B. It provides a detailed schedule.
C. It ensures no work is overlooked.
D. It reduces stakeholder conflicts.

correct answer: C
explanation: A WBS ensures all project work is captured.

question: 13
Earned Value (EV) is $30,000, and Actual Cost (AC) is $40,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. 0.75
B. 1.33
C. 1.25
D. 0.80

correct answer: A
explanation: CPI = EV ÷ AC = 30,000 ÷ 40,000 = 0.75.

question: 14
Which project document defines how and when team members are released?
A. Resource management plan
B. Project charter
C. Project scope statement
D. Team charter

correct answer: A
explanation: The resource management plan covers acquisition and release criteria.

question: 15
Which of the following is NOT an interpersonal skill for project managers?
A. Negotiation
B. Leadership
C. Scheduling
D. Team building

correct answer: C
explanation: Scheduling is a technical skill, not interpersonal.

question: 16
When is the risk register updated?
A. Only during planning
B. Only at project closeout
C. Throughout the project lifecycle
D. Only after a major issue

correct answer: C
explanation: The risk register is updated throughout the project as new risks are identified.

question: 17
In which process group is the stakeholder engagement plan developed?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

correct answer: B
explanation: The stakeholder engagement plan is developed during planning.

question: 18
Fast tracking is an example of what?
A. Risk mitigation
B. Schedule compression
C. Cost cutting
D. Risk avoidance

correct answer: B
explanation: Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique.

question: 19
You are asked to manage a project with undefined requirements and a high level of uncertainty. Which development life cycle is best?
A. Predictive
B. Iterative
C. Incremental
D. Agile

correct answer: D
explanation: Agile is best when requirements are unclear and changes are expected.

question: 20
During which process is the project team formed?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Acquire Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Plan Resource Management

correct answer: B
explanation: In Acquire Resources, the project team is selected and formed.

question: 21
You are asked to crash your project schedule. What does this mean?
A. Add more resources to critical path tasks
B. Decrease quality requirements
C. Perform tasks in parallel
D. Remove non-critical tasks

correct answer: A
explanation: Crashing means adding resources to shorten the schedule on critical path activities.

question: 22
Which of the following is part of the project scope but not the product scope?
A. Features of the product
B. Work required to deliver the product
C. Functions of the product
D. Technical specifications

correct answer: B
explanation: Project scope is about the work, while product scope is about the features.

question: 23
Which estimate technique uses historical data from a similar project?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Three-point estimating

correct answer: B
explanation: Analogous estimating uses data from past similar projects.

question: 24
Which theory states that people are motivated by hierarchy of needs?
A. McGregor’s Theory X and Y
B. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
C. Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory
D. Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

correct answer: B
explanation: Maslow’s theory explains motivation through five levels of needs.

question: 25
Which document describes how formal acceptance of deliverables will be obtained?
A. Scope management plan
B. Requirements management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Project charter

correct answer: A
explanation: The scope management plan details how deliverables are formally accepted.

question: 26
A project team is distributed across multiple countries. Which communication method is best?
A. Face-to-face meetings
B. Email
C. Interactive communication
D. Push communication

correct answer: C
explanation: Interactive communication (like video calls) is best for distributed teams.

question: 27
Which conflict resolution technique involves finding a mutually acceptable solution?
A. Smoothing
B. Avoiding
C. Compromising
D. Forcing

correct answer: C
explanation: Compromising seeks a solution acceptable to all parties.

question: 28
In earned value management, if SPI is less than 1, what does it indicate?
A. Project is ahead of schedule
B. Project is under budget
C. Project is behind schedule
D. Project is over budget

correct answer: C
explanation: SPI < 1 means the project is behind schedule.

question: 29
Which quality tool shows the relationship between two variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Control chart
C. Histogram
D. Pareto chart

correct answer: A
explanation: A scatter diagram shows the relationship between two variables.

question: 30
What is the main purpose of a stakeholder register?
A. Identify project deliverables
B. Manage procurement
C. Record stakeholder information
D. Create communication channels

correct answer: C
explanation: A stakeholder register records key stakeholder details.

question: 31
Which leadership style is most appropriate for a highly skilled, self-motivated team?
A. Directive
B. Coaching
C. Supportive
D. Laissez-faire

correct answer: D
explanation: Laissez-faire leadership works best with motivated, skilled teams.

question: 32
Which is an example of an external dependency?
A. Approval from a government agency
B. Internal technical review
C. Testing a new software module
D. Resource availability within the organization

correct answer: A
explanation: External dependencies are outside the project team’s control.

question: 33
Who signs off on the project charter?
A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. Sponsor
D. PMO

correct answer: C
explanation: The project sponsor authorizes and signs off on the project charter.

question: 34
Which contract type is best when the scope is unclear?
A. Firm fixed price
B. Fixed price with incentive fee
C. Cost-reimbursable
D. Fixed price economic price adjustment

correct answer: C
explanation: Cost-reimbursable contracts are better when the scope is not well defined.

question: 35
Which tool is used to create a hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables?
A. WBS
B. Network diagram
C. Activity list
D. Milestone list

correct answer: A
explanation: A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) decomposes deliverables hierarchically.

question: 36
Which of the following is NOT an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Business case
B. Agreements
C. Project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

correct answer: C
explanation: The project management plan does not exist until after the charter is developed.

question: 37
Which of the following is true about a project?
A. It is ongoing and repetitive
B. It creates a unique product, service, or result
C. It has no definite beginning or end
D. It focuses mainly on operational work

correct answer: B
explanation: A project creates something unique and has a defined beginning and end.

question: 38
During which process do you define and document stakeholders’ needs and requirements?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: In Collect Requirements, you gather and document stakeholder needs.

question: 39
Which schedule compression technique increases risk the most?
A. Fast tracking
B. Crashing
C. Decomposition
D. Rolling wave planning

correct answer: A
explanation: Fast tracking increases risk because activities are done in parallel.

question: 40
Which of the following is a “push” communication method?
A. Telephone conversation
B. Video conference
C. Email blast to stakeholders
D. Instant messaging conversation

correct answer: C
explanation: Push communication involves sending information to recipients without real-time feedback.

question: 41
Which process involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating project progress?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Control Scope

correct answer: B
explanation: Monitor and Control Project Work ensures project progress aligns with the plan.

question: 42
A project manager needs to motivate the team. According to Herzberg’s theory, which is a hygiene factor?
A. Recognition
B. Salary
C. Achievement
D. Growth opportunities

correct answer: B
explanation: Salary is a hygiene factor (prevents dissatisfaction).

question: 43
Which schedule network analysis technique deals with resource limitations?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Fast tracking
D. Monte Carlo simulation

correct answer: B
explanation: Critical chain method focuses on resource constraints.

question: 44
Which term describes uncontrolled changes or continuous growth in a project’s scope?
A. Scope validation
B. Scope creep
C. Scope management
D. Gold plating

correct answer: B
explanation: Scope creep refers to uncontrolled, unapproved changes.

question: 45
What is the key output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Change requests
B. Approved change requests
C. Project management plan updates
D. Work performance information

correct answer: B
explanation: Approved change requests are the main output.

question: 46
The risk response strategy for opportunities that involves assigning ownership to a third party is called:
A. Mitigate
B. Share
C. Transfer
D. Accept

correct answer: B
explanation: For opportunities, share means partnering with others.

question: 47
Which technique is used to estimate the range of possible outcomes for a project?
A. Monte Carlo simulation
B. Delphi technique
C. Brainstorming
D. SWOT analysis

correct answer: A
explanation: Monte Carlo simulation models probability outcomes.

question: 48
During the closing phase, a major deliverable is rejected. What should the project manager do?
A. Update lessons learned
B. Issue a change request
C. Revalidate the deliverable against requirements
D. Request additional funding

correct answer: C
explanation: Always revalidate against documented requirements first.

question: 49
Which communication model involves two-way communication with confirmation?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Broadcast

correct answer: C
explanation: Interactive communication is two-way and includes confirmation.

question: 50
In a RACI matrix, what does “A” stand for?
A. Accountable
B. Approver
C. Action
D. Analyst

correct answer: A
explanation: In a RACI matrix, “A” means Accountable.

question: 51
Which estimating technique provides a three-point estimate?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. PERT
D. Bottom-up

correct answer: C
explanation: PERT uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates.

question: 52
In stakeholder analysis, a stakeholder with high power and low interest should be:
A. Kept informed
B. Monitored
C. Managed closely
D. Kept satisfied

correct answer: D
explanation: High power/low interest stakeholders should be kept satisfied.

question: 53
When should you perform quality audits?
A. After project completion
B. During project closure
C. As part of quality assurance
D. During scope validation

correct answer: C
explanation: Quality audits are part of quality assurance.

question: 54
What is a tornado diagram used for?
A. Perform variance analysis
B. Perform sensitivity analysis
C. Perform stakeholder analysis
D. Perform qualitative risk analysis

correct answer: B
explanation: A tornado diagram visualizes sensitivity analysis.

question: 55
What document is updated during the Identify Risks process?
A. Issue log
B. Risk register
C. Project scope statement
D. WBS dictionary

correct answer: B
explanation: Risks identified are recorded in the risk register.

question: 56
Which conflict resolution method temporarily addresses the problem but does not solve it?
A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Collaborating
D. Compromising

correct answer: B
explanation: Smoothing eases tension but does not solve the problem long-term.

question: 57
A project team decides to cancel a low-priority risk. Which strategy are they using?
A. Mitigate
B. Accept
C. Avoid
D. Transfer

correct answer: B
explanation: Accepting the risk means no proactive action is taken.

question: 58
Which contract type has the least financial risk for the buyer?
A. Time and Material
B. Cost-reimbursable
C. Fixed-price
D. Cost plus incentive fee

correct answer: C
explanation: Fixed-price contracts put most risk on the seller.

question: 59
Which cost estimation technique uses cost per unit and multiplies by the number of units?
A. Bottom-up
B. Analogous
C. Parametric
D. Expert judgment

correct answer: C
explanation: Parametric estimating is based on unit rates.

question: 60
In risk management, what is a trigger?
A. An identified risk
B. A sign that a risk event is about to occur
C. A contingency plan
D. A fallback plan

correct answer: B
explanation: A trigger signals a risk is about to happen.

question: 61
Who is responsible for managing project constraints?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. PMO
D. Functional manager

correct answer: B
explanation: The project manager manages scope, schedule, cost, risk, quality, etc.

question: 62
What is the main purpose of a procurement statement of work (SOW)?
A. Describe how vendors will be selected
B. Describe the deliverables vendors must provide
C. Define contract terms
D. Define communication methods

correct answer: B
explanation: The procurement SOW describes vendor deliverables.

question: 63
Which document authorizes the procurement of goods and services from outside the organization?
A. Change request
B. Purchase order
C. Contract
D. Risk management plan

correct answer: B
explanation: A purchase order authorizes external procurement.

question: 64
The primary output of the Close Project or Phase process is:
A. Final product, service, or result transition
B. Lessons learned register
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project charter

correct answer: A
explanation: Final deliverable transition is the main output of closing.

question: 65
In Agile, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product?
A. Scrum master
B. Project manager
C. Product owner
D. Development team

correct answer: C
explanation: The product owner maximizes product value in Agile.

question: 66
In stakeholder engagement, if a stakeholder has low influence and low interest, what should you do?
A. Manage closely
B. Keep informed
C. Monitor
D. Keep satisfied

correct answer: C
explanation: Low influence/low interest stakeholders should be monitored.

question: 67
What process ensures that requested changes and corrective actions are properly authorized?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Control Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: Perform Integrated Change Control authorizes and manages changes.

question: 68
What is a backlog in Agile methodology?
A. List of completed work
B. List of features and requirements
C. List of team roles
D. List of approved changes

correct answer: B
explanation: The product backlog contains features and requirements.

question: 69
In a risk matrix, risks that are high probability and high impact should be:
A. Accepted
B. Avoided or mitigated
C. Transferred
D. Monitored

correct answer: B
explanation: High probability/high impact risks are avoided or mitigated.

question: 70
The Delphi technique is best described as:
A. Brainstorming with stakeholders
B. Expert judgment from a single source
C. Anonymous expert feedback with multiple rounds
D. Simulation of project activities

correct answer: C
explanation: Delphi technique uses anonymous rounds of expert feedback to reach consensus.

question: 71
Which document identifies who is responsible for what in a project?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Organizational process assets

correct answer: B
explanation: A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) links activities to responsible people.

question: 72
Which risk response strategy involves changing the project plan to eliminate a threat?
A. Mitigate
B. Accept
C. Transfer
D. Avoid

correct answer: D
explanation: Avoid means changing plans to eliminate the risk.

question: 73
What is rolling wave planning?
A. Fast-tracking the project
B. Planning all project details at the start
C. Progressive elaboration of planning as more information becomes available
D. Crashing the schedule

correct answer: C
explanation: Rolling wave planning is planning in steps as information becomes clearer.

question: 74
What is the definition of a milestone?
A. Major deliverable
B. Activity with no duration
C. Resource constraint
D. Critical path event

correct answer: B
explanation: A milestone is an event with zero duration.

question: 75
What is the main output of the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Statement of work
C. Procurement contracts
D. Procurement documents

correct answer: A
explanation: Procurement management plan is the main output.

question: 76
When a team member suggests improvements to processes during a project, it is an example of:
A. Quality assurance
B. Change control
C. Corrective action
D. Preventive action

correct answer: D
explanation: Preventive actions aim to avoid future problems.

question: 77
Which document contains the detailed description of the work required for each project deliverable?
A. Project scope statement
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. WBS dictionary
D. Activity list

correct answer: C
explanation: The WBS dictionary details the work for each deliverable.

question: 78
Which process defines how changes to the project will be monitored and controlled?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

correct answer: D
explanation: Perform Integrated Change Control governs change monitoring and approval.

question: 79
Which conflict resolution technique is considered a “win-win” situation?
A. Forcing
B. Compromising
C. Collaborating
D. Avoiding

correct answer: C
explanation: Collaborating seeks a solution that satisfies all parties.

question: 80
What is the critical path?
A. The path with the most activities
B. The path with zero float
C. The path with the least resources
D. The path with highest cost

correct answer: B
explanation: Critical path has zero float (no scheduling flexibility).

question: 81
What type of risk response is purchasing insurance for a project risk?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Mitigate
D. Accept

correct answer: B
explanation: Transfer shifts risk to a third party, like insurance.

question: 82
Which cost management process involves aggregating estimated costs to establish an authorized cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Control Costs
D. Plan Cost Management

correct answer: B
explanation: Determine Budget aggregates costs into a cost baseline.

question: 83
When the seller is reimbursed for allowable costs and receives a fixed fee, this is a:
A. Firm fixed price contract
B. Time and materials contract
C. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
D. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract

correct answer: C
explanation: Cost-plus-fixed-fee = reimbursement + fixed fee.

question: 84
Which project selection method uses present value and future cash inflows?
A. Benefit-cost ratio (BCR)
B. Net present value (NPV)
C. Payback period
D. Opportunity cost

correct answer: B
explanation: NPV calculates today’s value of future cash flows.

question: 85
During project execution, a stakeholder insists on adding extra features. What should the project manager do first?
A. Update the project plan
B. Submit a change request
C. Implement the change immediately
D. Reject the change

correct answer: B
explanation: Always submit a change request for review.

question: 86
Which process ensures that each deliverable is formally accepted?
A. Validate Scope
B. Control Quality
C. Define Scope
D. Plan Scope Management

correct answer: A
explanation: Validate Scope ensures formal acceptance of deliverables.

question: 87
In Agile projects, progress is primarily measured by:
A. Percentage complete
B. Story points completed
C. Earned value analysis
D. Gantt charts

correct answer: B
explanation: Story points completed measure Agile progress.

question: 88
Which tool is used to prioritize risks based on probability and impact?
A. Risk register
B. Risk matrix
C. Risk report
D. Decision tree analysis

correct answer: B
explanation: A risk matrix prioritizes risks based on probability/impact.

question: 89
Who is responsible for risk management in a project?
A. Risk manager
B. Project manager
C. Sponsor
D. Project team

correct answer: B
explanation: The project manager leads risk management efforts.

question: 90
Which communication method allows stakeholders to access information at their convenience?
A. Push communication
B. Pull communication
C. Interactive communication
D. Broadcast communication

correct answer: B
explanation: Pull communication is on-demand (e.g., websites, knowledge bases).

question: 91
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required?
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. External dependency
D. Internal dependency

correct answer: A
explanation: Mandatory dependencies are legally or contractually binding.

question: 92
Which estimating technique is most accurate but also most time-consuming?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Three-point estimating

correct answer: C
explanation: Bottom-up estimating is the most detailed and accurate.

question: 93
In which process group is the project charter created?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

correct answer: A
explanation: The project charter is created during Initiating.

question: 94
Which Agile ceremony focuses on identifying process improvements?
A. Sprint planning
B. Daily stand-up
C. Sprint review
D. Sprint retrospective

correct answer: D
explanation: The Sprint Retrospective focuses on process improvement.

question: 95
If the CPI is 1.0, what does it mean?
A. Project is ahead of budget
B. Project is on budget
C. Project is behind budget
D. Project is under scope

correct answer: B
explanation: CPI (Cost Performance Index) = 1 means on budget.

question: 96
Which of the following is NOT an output of the Plan Quality Management process?
A. Quality metrics
B. Quality control measurements
C. Quality management plan
D. Process improvement plan

correct answer: B
explanation: Quality control measurements are from Control Quality, not Plan Quality.

question: 97
Which process involves measuring project performance against the project management plan?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: Monitor and Control Project Work measures performance vs. plan.

question: 98
A project manager identifies that deliverables do not meet quality standards. What is the appropriate action?
A. Validate Scope
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Perform Quality Assurance

correct answer: B
explanation: Control Quality ensures deliverables meet requirements.

question: 99
Who provides the funding for the project?
A. Project manager
B. Sponsor
C. PMO
D. Functional manager

correct answer: B
explanation: The project sponsor provides project funding.

question: 100
What is the purpose of configuration management?
A. Manage project changes
B. Ensure product consistency
C. Track resource utilization
D. Manage project risks

correct answer: B
explanation: Configuration management ensures product consistency.

question: 101
The PMI Code of Ethics requires project managers to act in the best interest of:
A. Their employer only
B. Themselves
C. The public and the profession
D. Their project team

correct answer: C
explanation: Project managers should act in the best interest of the public and the profession.

question: 102
Which PMI certification focuses on risk management?
A. PMP
B. PMI-RMP
C. PMI-SP
D. PMI-PBA

correct answer: B
explanation: PMI-RMP = Risk Management Professional.

question: 103
According to PMI, who is accountable for managing stakeholder expectations?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. PMO

correct answer: C
explanation: The Project Manager manages stakeholder expectations.

question: 104
What is emphasized by PMI when making decisions under uncertainty?
A. Stakeholder influence
B. Risk appetite
C. Fairness and honesty
D. Risk mitigation

correct answer: C
explanation: PMI emphasizes fairness and honesty at all times.

question: 105
What does PMI define as “an endeavor with a defined beginning and end”?
A. Process
B. Operation
C. Project
D. Strategy

correct answer: C
explanation: A project is temporary with a beginning and an end.

question: 106
When dealing with a culturally diverse project team, PMI encourages:
A. Using a strict management style
B. Focusing on only majority opinions
C. Respecting and integrating cultural differences
D. Ignoring cultural differences

correct answer: C
explanation: PMI promotes respect for diversity.

question: 107
What is the document called that officially authorizes a project?
A. Project Plan
B. Project Management Plan
C. Business Case
D. Project Charter

correct answer: D
explanation: The Project Charter authorizes the project.

question: 108
Which of the following is NOT a PMI core value?
A. Honesty
B. Courage
C. Respect
D. Fairness

correct answer: B
explanation: Courage is not listed in PMI’s core values.

question: 109
PMI advocates proactive communication. Which method BEST supports this value?
A. Only report during issues
B. Communicate regularly and clearly
C. Wait for stakeholders to request updates
D. Minimize meetings

correct answer: B
explanation: Proactive and clear communication is PMI best practice.

question: 110
Which PMI certification focuses on project scheduling?
A. PMI-RMP
B. PMP
C. PMI-SP
D. PMI-ACP

correct answer: C
explanation: PMI-SP = Scheduling Professional.

question: 111
A Project Manager finds out that a supplier is offering gifts for future business. What should the Project Manager do according to PMI ethics?
A. Accept the gift privately
B. Refuse the gift and report the incident
C. Negotiate a better deal
D. Ignore the situation

correct answer: B
explanation: Refuse gifts and report unethical behavior.

question: 112
Which PMI process group monitors and controls the project work?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

correct answer: C
explanation: Monitoring and Controlling tracks performance.

question: 113
PMI describes progressive elaboration as:
A. Detailed upfront planning
B. Planning everything after execution
C. Developing details over time
D. Rigid planning

correct answer: C
explanation: Progressive elaboration means refining details as the project progresses.

question: 114
Which PMI role manages benefits realization from programs?
A. Project Manager
B. Program Manager
C. Portfolio Manager
D. Sponsor

correct answer: B
explanation: The Program Manager manages program benefits.

question: 115
What behavior would violate PMI’s Code of Ethics?
A. Providing honest status reports
B. Discriminating against a team member
C. Admitting mistakes and fixing them
D. Treating all vendors equally

correct answer: B
explanation: Discrimination violates PMI’s core values.

question: 116
The best way to demonstrate respect per PMI is to:
A. Compete with team members
B. Listen to others’ points of view
C. Criticize privately
D. Delay responses to avoid conflict

correct answer: B
explanation: Listening actively shows respect.

question: 117
Which PMI certification is most relevant for a leader managing multiple interdependent projects?
A. PMP
B. PgMP
C. PMI-SP
D. CAPM

correct answer: B
explanation: PgMP = Program Management Professional.

question: 118
According to PMI, what is a deliverable?
A. A completed project
B. A product, result, or capability produced
C. A stakeholder approval
D. A phase exit

correct answer: B
explanation: A deliverable is a product, result, or capability.

question: 119
What is the responsibility of the sponsor according to PMI?
A. Manage daily project activities
B. Approve project charter and funding
C. Write project plans
D. Manage communication plan

correct answer: B
explanation: Sponsor approves charter and secures funding.

question: 120
What is a key benefit of following PMI ethical practices?
A. Avoiding audits
B. Higher salaries
C. Increased trust and credibility
D. Faster project completion

correct answer: C
explanation: Ethics build trust and credibility.

question: 121
According to PMI, tailoring is:
A. Mandatory use of all processes
B. Avoiding certain steps
C. Adjusting practices to fit the project
D. Removing quality control

correct answer: C
explanation: Tailoring means adjusting practices to the project needs.

question: 122
If a project manager falsifies project documents, which PMI value is being violated?
A. Responsibility
B. Respect
C. Fairness
D. Honesty

correct answer: D
explanation: Honesty is violated when falsifying information.

question: 123
According to PMI, what is operational work?
A. Unique and temporary
B. Repetitive and ongoing
C. Part of closing processes
D. Related to initiating

correct answer: B
explanation: Operational work is repetitive and ongoing.

question: 124
What document formally begins a project according to PMI?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Risk Register
C. Project Charter
D. Business Case

correct answer: C
explanation: The Project Charter formally starts a project.

question: 125
Which behavior supports PMI’s fairness value?
A. Showing bias
B. Following impartial decision-making
C. Preferring friends in promotions
D. Ignoring minority opinions

correct answer: B
explanation: Fairness = impartial decision-making.

question: 126
In PMI, who manages a collection of projects and programs that align with strategic goals?
A. Project Manager
B. Portfolio Manager
C. Program Manager
D. Scrum Master

correct answer: B
explanation: Portfolio Managers align projects to strategies.

question: 127
PMI recommends identifying stakeholders during which phase?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating

correct answer: D
explanation: Stakeholders should be identified during Initiating.

question: 128
According to PMI, when should quality planning begin?
A. Before charter approval
B. During Planning phase
C. After Monitoring phase
D. At project closure

correct answer: B
explanation: Quality planning happens during Planning.

question: 129
A project manager who immediately corrects unethical behavior on their team is demonstrating which PMI value?
A. Respect
B. Fairness
C. Responsibility
D. Honesty

correct answer: C
explanation: Responsibility is about correcting unethical acts.

question: 130
PMI defines a program as:
A. A temporary endeavor
B. A group of unrelated projects
C. Related projects managed in a coordinated way
D. A major project milestone

correct answer: C
explanation: A program is a group of related projects managed together.

question: 131
Which document identifies and describes the products, services, or results to be delivered by the project?
A. Project Charter
B. Scope Statement
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Stakeholder Register

correct answer: B
explanation: The Scope Statement describes the project deliverables in detail.

question: 132
Which technique helps collect requirements according to PMI?
A. SWOT Analysis
B. Interviews
C. Critical Chain
D. Benchmarking

correct answer: B
explanation: Interviews are a key tool for collecting requirements.

question: 133
What does a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) show?
A. Project costs
B. Task deadlines
C. Who does what on the project
D. Change control process

correct answer: C
explanation: The RAM links tasks to individuals or roles.

question: 134
Which conflict resolution technique is best for long-term project success according to PMI?
A. Withdrawal
B. Compromise
C. Collaboration
D. Forcing

correct answer: C
explanation: Collaboration solves conflicts permanently.

question: 135
What type of dependency is legally or contractually required?
A. Discretionary
B. Mandatory
C. External
D. Internal

correct answer: B
explanation: Mandatory dependencies are legal or contractual.

question: 136
What is the BEST definition of a stakeholder according to PMI?
A. Anyone financially supporting the project
B. Anyone affected by the project
C. Anyone working on the project
D. Only the sponsor

correct answer: B
explanation: A stakeholder is anyone affected by the project.

question: 137
In which process group does risk identification primarily occur?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing

correct answer: B
explanation: Risks are mainly identified during Planning.

question: 138
A project is terminated early. Which process should the project manager perform next?
A. Risk reassessment
B. Lessons learned
C. Scope redefinition
D. Benefit management

correct answer: B
explanation: Conduct a lessons learned session when a project ends early.

question: 139
What type of project management office (PMO) exercises a high degree of control?
A. Supportive
B. Controlling
C. Directive
D. Coaching

correct answer: C
explanation: A Directive PMO takes control of projects directly.

question: 140
According to PMI, who validates the project deliverables?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. PMO

correct answer: B
explanation: The Customer validates the deliverables.

question: 141
Which contract type places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost-plus-incentive-fee
B. Time and Materials
C. Cost-reimbursable
D. Fixed-price

correct answer: D
explanation: Fixed-price contracts transfer risk to the seller.

question: 142
Which risk response strategy involves allocating ownership to a third party?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Transfer
D. Mitigate

correct answer: C
explanation: Transfer involves moving risk to a third party (like insurance).

question: 143
What document links requirements to their origin and tracks them throughout the project?
A. Project Charter
B. Requirements Traceability Matrix
C. Scope Baseline
D. Change Log

correct answer: B
explanation: The Requirements Traceability Matrix tracks requirements.

question: 144
What is a project assumption?
A. Verified fact
B. Stakeholder expectation
C. Accepted truth without proof
D. Project constraint

correct answer: C
explanation: An assumption is something believed true without proof.

question: 145
The cost baseline is used to measure:
A. Scope creep
B. Resource performance
C. Cost performance
D. Risk probability

correct answer: C
explanation: The Cost Baseline measures cost performance.

question: 146
What are the three main components of the triple constraint?
A. Time, Scope, Budget
B. Risk, Communication, Quality
C. Cost, Quality, Communication
D. Scope, Procurement, Time

correct answer: A
explanation: The triple constraint is Scope, Time, Cost.

question: 147
In Earned Value Management (EVM), what does SPI > 1 mean?
A. Under budget
B. Ahead of schedule
C. Behind schedule
D. Over budget

correct answer: B
explanation: SPI (Schedule Performance Index) greater than 1 = ahead of schedule.

question: 148
In communications management, a project manager should:
A. Focus only on upward communication
B. Only communicate when necessary
C. Communicate clearly, concisely, and frequently
D. Communicate only by email

correct answer: C
explanation: PMI emphasizes clear, concise, and frequent communication.

question: 149
What is a key tool for managing stakeholder expectations?
A. Scope Statement
B. Communication Management Plan
C. Risk Register
D. Work Breakdown Structure

correct answer: B
explanation: A good Communication Plan helps manage expectations.

question: 150
Which of the following is NOT a PMI process group?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Initiating
D. Executing Monitoring

correct answer: D
explanation: It should be Executing and Monitoring and Controlling separately.

question: 151
The project schedule is based primarily on:
A. Network diagram
B. Charter
C. Risk Register
D. Work Breakdown Structure

correct answer: A
explanation: The network diagram drives the schedule.

question: 152
What is the critical path in a project schedule?
A. Path with least activities
B. Path with maximum slack
C. Longest duration path
D. Path with most resources

correct answer: C
explanation: The critical path is the longest path with no float.

question: 153
Which document identifies risks and potential responses?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Log
D. Quality Management Plan

correct answer: B
explanation: The Risk Register records risks and responses.

question: 154
If an issue occurs that was not identified as a risk, it should be:
A. Added to the Issue Log
B. Ignored
C. Added to the Risk Register
D. Escalated to the customer

correct answer: A
explanation: Unidentified issues go into the Issue Log

question: 155
A project baseline is a snapshot of:
A. Scope, Time, Cost
B. Risks and Issues
C. Quality Standards
D. Communication Plan

correct answer: A
explanation: Baselines include Scope, Time, and Cost.

question: 156
Which organizational structure gives the project manager full authority?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Balanced Matrix

correct answer: C
explanation: In a Projectized structure, the PM has full authority.

question: 157
What is fast tracking in project management?
A. Performing activities in sequence
B. Overlapping activities to reduce schedule
C. Outsourcing activities
D. Crashing the budget

correct answer: B
explanation: Fast tracking overlaps activities to save time.

question: 158
If a project’s CPI (Cost Performance Index) is 0.9, what does it mean?
A. Under budget
B. Over budget
C. On budget
D. Ahead of schedule

correct answer: B
explanation: CPI < 1 means over budget.

question: 159
What is scope creep?
A. Fast tracking a project
B. Unauthorized changes to scope
C. Reducing project scope
D. Eliminating deliverables

correct answer: B
explanation: Scope creep = uncontrolled changes to scope.

question: 160
Which leadership style focuses on inspiring and motivating the team?
A. Transactional
B. Transformational
C. Directive
D. Laissez-faire

correct answer: B
explanation: Transformational leadership inspires people.

question: 161
What is the main output of the “Plan Procurement Management” process?
A. Procurement Documents
B. Procurement Management Plan
C. Contract Awards
D. Seller Invoices

correct answer: B
explanation: The output is the Procurement Management Plan.

question: 162
When should change requests be submitted?
A. After closing
B. During Monitoring and Controlling
C. Only during Execution
D. Only during Planning

correct answer: B
explanation: Change requests are submitted during Monitoring and Controlling.

question: 163
Who determines the project priorities when managing constraints?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Sponsor
C. PMO
D. Stakeholders

correct answer: D
explanation: Stakeholders define project priorities.

question: 164
What is the lowest level of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A. Deliverable
B. Work Package
C. Activity
D. Task

correct answer: B
explanation: Work Package is the lowest WBS level.

question: 165
Which of the following is a push communication method?
A. Webinars
B. Newsletters
C. Interactive Meetings
D. Team Collaboration Sites

correct answer: B
explanation: Push communication sends information (e.g., newsletters).

question: 166
Which tool is used for analyzing the causes of a problem?
A. Gantt Chart
B. Pareto Diagram
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Flowchart

correct answer: C
explanation: The Fishbone Diagram finds root causes.

question: 167
If two team members are in conflict about a technical approach, what is the BEST conflict resolution technique?
A. Force one approach
B. Collaborate for a solution
C. Withdraw from the issue
D. Ignore the problem

correct answer: B
explanation: Collaboration resolves technical disputes best.

question: 168
Which document identifies key stakeholders and their level of interest?
A. Risk Register
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Project Charter
D. Issue Log

correct answer: B
explanation: Stakeholder Register lists key stakeholders.

question: 169
According to PMI, the main focus of a portfolio is:
A. Managing related projects
B. Aligning projects with organizational strategy
C. Achieving program benefits
D. Managing individual deliverables

correct answer: B
explanation: Portfolios align projects to strategic goals.

question: 170
In Agile, what is the term for a backlog item that must be completed in a sprint?
A. Epic
B. Story
C. Task
D. Increment

correct answer: B
explanation: A Story represents a backlog item for the sprint.

question: 171
Which quality tool organizes causes of defects into categories?
A. Scatter Diagram
B. Histogram
C. Cause and Effect Diagram
D. Control Chart

correct answer: C
explanation: The Cause and Effect Diagram organizes root causes.

question: 172
Project performance measurement against the plan is done during which process group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating

correct answer: C
explanation: Monitoring and Controlling measures performance.

question: 173
If a project manager influences the factors that create changes, which process are they performing?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Monitor Risks

correct answer: A
explanation: Perform Integrated Change Control manages changes.

question: 174
When is the final project report created?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Executing

correct answer: C
explanation: The final report is prepared during Closing.

question: 175
Which of the following is an interpersonal skill needed by a Project Manager?
A. Scheduling
B. Cost Estimation
C. Active Listening
D. Earned Value Analysis

correct answer: C
explanation: Active Listening is a critical interpersonal skill.

question: 176
What are “gold plating” actions?
A. Enhancing project without stakeholder request
B. Cost-cutting measures
C. Project crashing
D. Scope reduction

correct answer: A
explanation: Gold plating means adding features without customer request.

question: 177
What tool is used to visually display project schedule dependencies?
A. Gantt Chart
B. Scatter Diagram
C. Flowchart
D. Pareto Chart

correct answer: A
explanation: Gantt charts show schedule and dependencies.

question: 178
A WBS should be created during which process group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating

correct answer: A
explanation: The WBS is created during Planning.

question: 179
Who has ultimate accountability for project success?
A. PMO
B. Sponsor
C. Project Manager
D. Stakeholders

correct answer: C
explanation: The Project Manager is accountable for success.

question: 180
PMI views leadership primarily as:
A. Managing the team
B. Motivating and inspiring
C. Controlling the project
D. Reporting progress

correct answer: B
explanation: PMI views leadership as motivating and inspiring.

question: 181
What is the output of the “Develop Project Charter” process?
A. Scope Baseline
B. Project Charter
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Risk Register

correct answer: B
explanation: The Project Charter is the output that officially starts the project.

question: 182
During which process group is a high-level project description developed?
A. Planning
B. Initiating
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

correct answer: B
explanation: The high-level description is part of the Initiating phase.

question: 183
Which process involves measuring project performance regularly to identify variances?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan

correct answer: B
explanation: Monitor and Control Project Work measures performance against the plan.

question: 184
In risk management, what is a “risk trigger”?
A. The impact of a risk
B. An early warning sign that a risk has occurred
C. A backup plan
D. The deadline for a risk response

correct answer: B
explanation: A risk trigger is a sign that a risk event may be about to happen.

question: 185
Which process involves comparing actual work results to the project management plan?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: C
explanation: Monitoring and Controlling compares actual results to the plan.

question: 186
When should lessons learned be documented?
A. After each project phase
B. Only at project closeout
C. During risk planning
D. During stakeholder meetings

correct answer: B
explanation: Lessons learned are documented during Closing.

question: 187
What is the primary purpose of a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix?
A. To create the scope baseline
B. To assess current vs desired stakeholder engagement
C. To identify all stakeholders
D. To create the communications plan

correct answer: B
explanation: It compares current engagement with desired engagement.

question: 188
Which scheduling technique shows dependencies and sequences graphically?
A. Gantt Chart
B. Fishbone Diagram
C. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
D. Monte Carlo Simulation

correct answer: C
explanation: PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method) shows dependencies.

question: 189
What technique is used to calculate the longest and shortest paths in a project schedule?
A. Monte Carlo Simulation
B. PERT
C. Critical Path Method
D. Fast Tracking

correct answer: C
explanation: The Critical Path Method (CPM) calculates schedule paths.

question: 190
What is crashing in project management?
A. Adding resources to shorten the schedule
B. Reducing the scope
C. Overlapping project activities
D. Fast-tracking

correct answer: A
explanation: Crashing means adding resources to shorten the schedule.

question: 191
Which estimating technique uses historical information from previous projects?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Parametric Estimating
C. Bottom-Up Estimating
D. Expert Judgment

correct answer: A
explanation: Analogous Estimating uses past project data.

question: 192
Which project document contains information about accepted and rejected deliverables?
A. Issue Log
B. Scope Statement
C. Requirements Documentation
D. Scope Validation Records

correct answer: D
explanation: Scope validation records show accepted/rejected deliverables.

question: 193
Which method is most appropriate for analyzing risks with uncertain outcomes?
A. Sensitivity Analysis
B. Monte Carlo Simulation
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Root Cause Analysis

correct answer: B
explanation: Monte Carlo Simulation deals with uncertainties.

question: 194
What is the purpose of a project kickoff meeting?
A. Assign project tasks
B. Discuss project closure
C. Formally start the project
D. Finalize project scope

correct answer: C
explanation: The kickoff meeting formally starts the project.

question: 195
Which type of report provides forecasts of project performance?
A. Status Report
B. Forecast Report
C. Variance Report
D. Risk Report

correct answer: B
explanation: A Forecast Report predicts future project performance.

question: 196
Which of the following is a benefit of a project management information system (PMIS)?
A. Reduces risk
B. Automates project management processes
C. Increases project costs
D. Limits communication

correct answer: B
explanation: A PMIS automates various project management tasks.

question: 197
What should be included in a change request?
A. Only the problem description
B. Impact analysis
C. Stakeholder names
D. Risk register updates

correct answer: B
explanation: Change requests must include an impact analysis.

question: 198
Which tool or technique is used in the “Validate Scope” process?
A. Variance Analysis
B. Inspection
C. Earned Value Analysis
D. SWOT

correct answer: B
explanation: Inspection is used to validate scope.

question: 199
When is a stakeholder engagement plan developed?
A. During Initiating
B. During Planning
C. During Executing
D. During Monitoring

correct answer: B
explanation: The Stakeholder Engagement Plan is created during Planning.

question: 200
Which process ensures that all requested changes and corrective actions are processed?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Control Quality
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: Perform Integrated Change Control manages changes.

question: 201
What type of risk is an opportunity?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Threat
D. Neutral

correct answer: A
explanation: An opportunity is a positive risk.

question: 202
Which estimating method uses a mathematical model?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Parametric Estimating
C. Bottom-Up Estimating
D. Expert Judgment

correct answer: B
explanation: Parametric Estimating uses mathematical formulas.

question: 203
What is a project’s float?
A. Budget reserve
B. Available time after project completion
C. Time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
D. Schedule acceleration

correct answer: C
explanation: Float is the amount of time an activity can slip without affecting the overall project.

question: 204
Which communication method is best for complex or sensitive information?
A. Email
B. Memos
C. Face-to-Face Meetings
D. Text Messages

correct answer: C
explanation: Face-to-face meetings are ideal for complex, sensitive communication.

question: 205
In a fixed-price contract, who bears the majority of risk?
A. Buyer
B. Seller
C. Both equally
D. Third party

correct answer: B
explanation: The seller bears more risk in fixed-price contracts.

question: 206
What is a corrective action?
A. Preventing a problem
B. Fixing past mistakes
C. Realigning project work with the plan
D. Approving changes

correct answer: C
explanation: Corrective actions realign project performance with the plan.

question: 207
What is the Delphi technique used for?
A. Scheduling
B. Quality Control
C. Risk Identification
D. Cost Estimation

correct answer: C
explanation: Delphi technique gathers expert opinions to identify risks.

question: 208
Which process defines how the project scope will be validated and controlled?
A. Plan Scope Management
B. Define Scope
C. Create WBS
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: Plan Scope Management defines how to validate and control scope.

question: 209
In a RACI chart, what does “C” stand for?
A. Control
B. Consulted
C. Customer
D. Completed

correct answer: B
explanation: C in RACI = Consulted.

question: 210
What is risk mitigation?
A. Eliminating all risks
B. Accepting risks
C. Reducing the probability or impact of a risk
D. Transferring risks to the customer

correct answer: C
explanation: Mitigation reduces probability or impact.

question: 211
Who creates the project management plan?
A. Sponsor
B. Project Team
C. Project Manager
D. Functional Manager

correct answer: C
explanation: The Project Manager creates the Project Management Plan.

question: 212
If a project team member is assigned but not reporting to the PM, what organization type is this?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Agile

correct answer: C
explanation: In a Matrix Organization, team members have dual reporting.

question: 213
What is the focus of Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Deliverable quality
B. Process improvement
C. Cost control
D. Stakeholder engagement

correct answer: B
explanation: Quality Assurance focuses on improving processes.

question: 214
What does BAC stand for in Earned Value Management?
A. Baseline at Completion
B. Budget at Completion
C. Benefit After Completion
D. Balance Across Costs

correct answer: B
explanation: BAC = Budget at Completion.

question: 215
Which is an output of the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Accepted Deliverables
B. Lessons Learned
C. Change Requests
D. Procurement Management Plan

correct answer: B
explanation: Lessons Learned are documented during project closure.

question: 216
What does a Pareto Chart show?
A. Risk Probability
B. Root Causes
C. Priority of Problems
D. Stakeholder Power

correct answer: C
explanation: Pareto Charts show problem priority based on the 80/20 rule.

question: 217
Which term describes the degree to which a set of characteristics fulfills requirements?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Risk
D. Value

correct answer: B
explanation: Quality means meeting requirements.

question: 218
In which procurement document does the buyer specify what the seller should do?
A. Request for Proposal (RFP)
B. Bidder Conference
C. Contract
D. Source Selection Criteria

correct answer: A
explanation: An RFP describes what the seller should propose.

question: 219
Which technique identifies ways to increase efficiency without reducing scope?
A. Crashing
B. Value Engineering
C. Root Cause Analysis
D. Earned Value

correct answer: B
explanation: Value Engineering increases value without cutting scope.

question: 220
Which chart best displays a project schedule?
A. Pareto Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Scatter Diagram
D. Fishbone Diagram

correct answer: B
explanation: A Bar Chart (Gantt Chart) displays schedules.

question: 221
Which process group involves obtaining seller responses?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring
D. Initiating

correct answer: B
explanation: Executing includes obtaining seller responses.

question: 222
A risk that is unknown and cannot be predicted is:
A. Known Unknown
B. Unknown Unknown
C. Secondary Risk
D. Residual Risk

correct answer: B
explanation: An Unknown Unknown is completely unforeseen.

question: 223
Which leadership style involves handing over decision-making to the team?
A. Autocratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Directive
D. Transformational

correct answer: B
explanation: Laissez-faire means a hands-off approach.

question: 224
In Agile, the person responsible for maximizing product value is:
A. Scrum Master
B. Developer
C. Product Owner
D. Project Sponsor

correct answer: C
explanation: The Product Owner maximizes value.

question: 225
Which process deals with documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, and coordinate project activities?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Define Activities
D. Sequence Activities

correct answer: C
explanation: Define Activities documents all project tasks.

question: 226
Which cost estimation technique offers the most accuracy?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-Up
D. Expert Judgment

correct answer: C
explanation: Bottom-Up Estimating is the most accurate.

question: 227
What is a secondary risk?
A. A risk with low impact
B. A new risk created by a response to another risk
C. A risk that remains after a mitigation
D. A risk shared among stakeholders

correct answer: B
explanation: A secondary risk arises due to implementing a risk response.

question: 228
The project manager’s authority is least in which organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced Matrix

correct answer: C
explanation: Functional organizations give PMs the least authority.

question: 229
Which Agile ceremony involves planning the next sprint?
A. Daily Standup
B. Sprint Review
C. Sprint Planning
D. Retrospective

correct answer: C
explanation: Sprint Planning sets the agenda for the next sprint.

question: 230
Which process involves analyzing project performance to determine corrective actions?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Validate Scope

correct answer: A
explanation: Monitor and Control Project Work identifies corrective actions.