CCST Cybersecurity(200-150)
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Exam Code |
200-150 |
Exam Name |
CCST Cybersecurity |
Questions |
300 Questions Answers With Explanation |
Update Date |
May 1, 2025 |
Sample Questions
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the CIA Triad in cybersecurity?
A. Control, Integrity, Authentication
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C. Compliance, Investigation, Accessibility
D. Configuration, Implementation, Audit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The CIA Triad is a foundational concept in cybersecurity focusing on Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability of data.
Question 2
What is the purpose of a firewall?
A. To monitor CPU performance
B. To provide a secure VPN tunnel
C. To block or allow traffic based on security rules
D. To generate encryption keys
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A firewall filters network traffic by applying predefined security rules, allowing or blocking traffic accordingly.
Question 3
Which type of malware locks the victim’s files and demands payment to restore access?
A. Worm
B. Spyware
C. Ransomware
D. Trojan
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ransomware encrypts files and demands a ransom for decryption keys.
Question 4
What does a phishing attack typically involve?
A. Scanning a network for vulnerabilities
B. Gaining unauthorized physical access
C. Sending fake emails to trick users into revealing sensitive information
D. Installing a hardware keylogger
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Phishing is a social engineering attack where attackers impersonate trusted entities to steal sensitive data.
Question 5
Which of the following is a strong password practice?
A. Using your birthdate
B. Including at least 12 characters with a mix of letters, numbers, and symbols
C. Reusing old passwords
D. Using common words
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Strong passwords are long and contain a mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and special characters.
Question 6
Which security principle ensures that users only have the permissions they need to do their job?
A. Defense in depth
B. Least privilege
C. Access control list
D. Multi-factor authentication
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The principle of least privilege limits user access rights to only what is necessary for their duties.
Question 7
What is the main purpose of an IDS (Intrusion Detection System)?
A. Block unauthorized access
B. Detect and alert on suspicious activity
C. Encrypt sensitive data
D. Manage firewall rules
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An IDS monitors network or system traffic for malicious activity or policy violations.
Question 8
What is two-factor authentication (2FA)?
A. Using a second firewall
B. Verifying identity with two or more security questions
C. Requiring two forms of identification to access a system
D. Encrypting data twice
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 2FA requires two types of credentials—typically something you know (password) and something you have (e.g., mobile code).
Question 9
Which protocol is used to securely browse websites?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HTTPS encrypts data exchanged between a browser and a website using SSL/TLS.
Question 10
What is the role of antivirus software?
A. Detect and remove malicious software
B. Encrypt email content
C. Monitor bandwidth usage
D. Create user accounts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Antivirus software scans systems to detect, quarantine, and remove malware.
Question 11
Which of the following best defines social engineering?
A. Exploiting software vulnerabilities
B. Brute-forcing passwords
C. Manipulating people to gain confidential information
D. Infecting a system with malware
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Social engineering involves tricking individuals into giving up confidential information.
Question 12
Which of these is a physical security control?
A. Password policy
B. Biometric scanner
C. Firewall configuration
D. Encryption
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Biometric scanners (like fingerprint or retina readers) are physical access control mechanisms.
Question 13
What is the main purpose of encryption?
A. To compress data
B. To block access
C. To ensure confidentiality
D. To detect malware
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Encryption ensures that data can only be read by authorized parties, protecting confidentiality.
Question 14
Which term refers to a weakness that could be exploited by a threat?
A. Patch
B. Exploit
C. Vulnerability
D. Malware
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A vulnerability is a flaw or weakness that can be exploited to compromise a system.
Question 15
Which of the following helps protect a system by restoring it to a previous state?
A. Firewall
B. System restore point
C. Anti-spyware
D. VPN
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A system restore point can help revert a system back to a known good configuration.
Question 16
What is the goal of penetration testing?
A. Encrypting network traffic
B. Finding and exploiting security vulnerabilities
C. Patching outdated software
D. Removing viruses
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Penetration testing simulates attacks to identify vulnerabilities before real attackers do.
Question 17
Which file type is most commonly associated with malware infections via email?
A. .txt
B. .pdf
C. .exe
D. .jpg
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Executable files (.exe) can run code and are commonly used to deliver malware.
Question 18
Which organization is responsible for publishing the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) database?
A. Microsoft
B. Cisco
C. MITRE
D. IBM
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MITRE manages the CVE list, which is a standardized dictionary of known vulnerabilities.
Question 19
Which of the following describes a zero-day vulnerability?
A. A threat with zero chance of success
B. A known vulnerability with a patch available
C. A new vulnerability that has no fix yet
D. A deprecated protocol
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A zero-day vulnerability is newly discovered and has no official patch or fix available yet.
Question 20
What does the term “attack surface” refer to?
A. A place where malware hides
B. The number of users on a network
C. The total number of potential entry points for an attacker
D. The thickness of a firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An attack surface includes all the points where an unauthorized user could attempt to enter or extract data from an environment.
Question 21
What does VPN stand for?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. Verified Protection Node
C. Variable Protocol Network
D. Virtualized Public Network
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A VPN encrypts internet traffic and allows secure remote access by creating a private tunnel over a public network.
Question 22
Which type of attack floods a network or server with traffic to make it unavailable?
A. Phishing
B. Man-in-the-Middle
C. DDoS
D. Keylogging
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks overwhelm a service with traffic from multiple sources.
Question 23
Which of the following is a characteristic of spyware?
A. Encrypts your files
B. Records your activity without consent
C. Pretends to be legitimate software
D. Disables system startup
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spyware is designed to covertly monitor user behavior and collect sensitive data.
Question 24
What does the principle of Defense in Depth mean?
A. Using only strong passwords
B. Having multiple layers of security controls
C. Keeping firewalls updated
D. Installing antivirus software only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Defense in Depth involves using multiple security measures to protect systems from threats.
Question 25
What is the purpose of a DMZ in networking?
A. Isolate infected machines
B. Secure wireless traffic
C. Host public-facing services separately from the internal network
D. Connect LAN to WAN
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) acts as a buffer between the public internet and private network, hosting services like web servers.
Question 26
Which port does HTTPS typically use?
A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 25
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HTTPS operates over port 443 using SSL/TLS encryption.
Question 27
What is a patch in cybersecurity?
A. A backup file
B. A security checklist
C. A fix for a vulnerability or bug
D. A firewall rule
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A patch is a software update that fixes security flaws or improves functionality.
Question 28
Which of these is a logical security control?
A. Firewall rule
B. Door lock
C. Security guard
D. Biometric access
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Logical controls are implemented through software, such as access control lists and firewall rules.
Question 29
What is the function of hashing?
A. To speed up downloads
B. To encrypt data for transmission
C. To verify data integrity
D. To compress files
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hashing creates a fixed-size output (hash) to verify that data hasn’t been altered.
Question 30
Which of the following is NOT a valid method of authentication?
A. Something you know
B. Something you do
C. Something you hate
D. Something you have
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Valid authentication factors include: something you know (password), have (token), or are (biometrics).
Question 31
What kind of attack involves intercepting communication between two parties?
A. DoS
B. Man-in-the-Middle
C. Spoofing
D. Phishing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack, the attacker secretly relays or alters communication between two parties.
Question 32
What is the role of a security policy in an organization?
A. To describe firewall hardware
B. To provide encryption algorithms
C. To outline expected security behavior and guidelines
D. To define passwords only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Security policies guide how an organization handles and protects information.
Question 33
Which regulation is primarily focused on protecting the personal data of EU citizens?
A. HIPAA
B. GDPR
C. SOX
D. PCI DSS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) protects the privacy of EU citizens.
Question 34
What does MAC filtering do?
A. Blocks malware
B. Encrypts data
C. Allows or denies network access based on device MAC addresses
D. Hides IP addresses
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MAC filtering restricts access to a network by only allowing known MAC addresses.
Question 35
Which protocol provides secure remote access to network devices?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts the session for remote device management.
Question 36
Which of these is a common sign of a compromised system?
A. Faster performance
B. Regular updates
C. Unexpected pop-ups and high CPU usage
D. Infrequent password changes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: These are common symptoms of malware infection or system compromise.
Question 37
Which tool is commonly used to analyze network traffic?
A. PuTTY
B. Wireshark
C. Git
D. Notepad++
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Wireshark captures and inspects packet-level network traffic for analysis.
Question 38
Which of the following best protects against email phishing?
A. Disabling Wi-Fi
B. Using spam filters and training users
C. Changing IP addresses
D. Installing firewalls only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spam filters and user awareness are key defenses against phishing.
Question 39
What does “hardening” a system involve?
A. Upgrading the hardware
B. Making it physically more durable
C. Reducing attack surface by disabling unnecessary services
D. Encrypting only external data
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: System hardening reduces vulnerabilities by minimizing system functionality to only what is necessary.
Question 40
Which of the following is not a cybersecurity best practice?
A. Regularly applying patches
B. Reusing passwords
C. Enforcing least privilege
D. Encrypting sensitive data
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Reusing passwords increases the risk of credential-based attacks.
Question 41
What does multi-factor authentication improve?
A. Internet speed
B. Password strength
C. User access logging
D. Account security
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: MFA greatly enhances account security by requiring multiple forms of identity verification.
Question 42
Which device provides network address translation (NAT)?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Routers often provide NAT to allow multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP.
Question 43
What does a digital certificate verify?
A. The user’s password
B. Software compatibility
C. The identity of the entity
D. Operating system version
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Digital certificates are used to prove the identity of websites and other entities via public key infrastructure (PKI).
Question 44
Which of the following would be considered a security incident?
A. Applying a patch
B. Accessing a website
C. Malware infection
D. Installing a printer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Malware infection is an example of a security incident and requires response.
Question 45
What is the first step in the incident response process?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Recovery
D. Eradication
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: You must first detect and identify an incident before taking action.
Question 46
Which term refers to security threats that originate from within the organization?
A. External threat
B. Lateral threat
C. Insider threat
D. Shadow IT
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Insider threats involve malicious or negligent actions by people within the organization.
Question 47
What is the primary goal of risk management?
A. Eliminate all vulnerabilities
B. Maintain 100% uptime
C. Reduce the impact and likelihood of threats
D. Increase network speed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Risk management focuses on identifying, assessing, and minimizing potential threats.
Question 48
What is the role of a honeypot in cybersecurity?
A. Encrypt communication
B. Store sensitive data
C. Attract and monitor attackers
D. Back up the network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A honeypot simulates a target to attract and analyze malicious activity.
Question 49
What is tailgating in cybersecurity?
A. Using outdated software
B. Following someone into a secure area without authorization
C. Listening to encrypted traffic
D. Overusing system resources
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tailgating is a physical security breach where unauthorized persons enter secure areas by following authorized personnel.
Question 50
What is the main purpose of a security audit?
A. To update passwords
B. To ensure compliance and identify weaknesses
C. To install antivirus
D. To configure routers
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A security audit assesses the effectiveness of security policies and controls, and ensures compliance with standards.
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CCST Cybersecurity(200-150)
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